Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language? - Graybeard Outdoors
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post #1 of 40 (permalink) Old 09-08-2016, 08:11 AM Thread Starter
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Default Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is discussed with 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection folks, some of them say that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language to explain the missing night time. Does anyone know of any examples from the 1st century or before which forecast a daytime or a night time being involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have taken place? If the verse is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to say that it was common.
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post #2 of 40 (permalink) Old 09-08-2016, 11:34 AM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?


The Jews of the time had a common way of 'reconing' time, part of a day is counted as a whole. Looks like other people have explained this to you.


http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/...php?p=19322387

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post #3 of 40 (permalink) Old 09-08-2016, 02:13 PM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

It's true the Jews counted any part of a day as a day so looking at the grave that way does accommodate three days but that still leaves a problem; the prophecy specifically says three "days" AND three nights. The only way that can be fulfilled is to have the crucifixion occur on Thursday. That's what I've come to believe happened because I trust the Bible.

We've come to believe the crucifixion was on Friday for one reason; the next day was Sabbath (Saturday). But ALL Jewish holidays were Sabbaths. I suspect the Passover was Friday, leaving the normal Saturday in place as two back to back Sabbaths. There are no prophecy contradictions or mental gymnastics needed IF the cross was on Thursday. ??

From what I understand, there were no special observances of Easter/Resurrection Day until many years after the event. It was hundreds of years later that the Roman church had drifted into thinking Jewish stuff didn't matter so observing Passover became a meaningless leftover Jewish subject. It was easy for them to then suppose the crucifixion occurred on "Good" Friday because everyone knew displayed dead bodies wouldn't be acceptable to Jews on a Saturday Sabbath. The rest of church history has mistakenly followed the early Roman pattern. I think.

(There are a lot more residual Roman church doctrines floating around than many people would think. The supposed possibility of losing one's salvation for instance!)

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post #4 of 40 (permalink) Old 09-08-2016, 07:23 PM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Was there a Passover involved here ?
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post #5 of 40 (permalink) Old 09-08-2016, 11:59 PM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Not only did the Jews observe the Saturday sabbath, but other special sabbaths as well. This was Passover week, but if my recollection is correct it was also a seven year sabbath.

The fact that they had to hurry the affair to bury him lends credence to it being a sabbath. When the ladies went to the grave Sunday am they were going to complete the hurried burial.

Also bear in mind the Jewish day was from "even until even", or 6:00 pm. John in his gospel mentions "watches" which indicates Roman time, while Matthew uses Jewish time.

It all seems Biblical that he died on Thursday, had a hurried burial before the special sabbath on Friday 6:00 pm.

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post #6 of 40 (permalink) Old 10-06-2016, 07:41 AM Thread Starter
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

mtdotcomm,
re: "The Jews of the time had a common way of 'reconing' time, part of a day is counted as a whole. Looks like other people have explained this to you."

Indeed they have, and I agree. But where did the Jews of the time have a common way of saying that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred?


Perhaps someone new looking in will know of examples.
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post #7 of 40 (permalink) Old 10-07-2016, 01:03 PM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

I have heard this preached on so many times---it is a hidden truth !
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post #8 of 40 (permalink) Old 11-21-2016, 07:23 AM Thread Starter
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in might know of examples.
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post #9 of 40 (permalink) Old 11-21-2016, 10:24 AM
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

Was there a Passover involved here? Wellllll ... yes.

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post #10 of 40 (permalink) Old 11-21-2016, 12:05 PM Thread Starter
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Default Re: Is Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

wncchester,

Since you're not a 6th day of the week crucifixion advocate, you most likely wouldn't know of any examples.
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